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Certainly. Your question is very thoughtful. The following points, I believe, will help put this issue in focus: First, the Bible does not attempt to conceal the foibles of the great people that adorn its pages. Abraham, Isaac, Moses, and David were normal human beings. They sinned like all other...
When we discuss the fact that we “hear God,” we are considering what God fundamentally communicates about the plan of salvation and how we can obey it. Of course, God “speaks” through his creation (Ps. 19:1; Rom. 1:20). But this general revelation of God does not specify how we can be saved from ...
No, it does not. Rather, Luke testifies to the voluntary, loving, and selfless disposition of Christians in Jerusalem: ““Now the full number of those who believed were of one heart and soul, and no one said that any of the things that belonged to him was his own, but they had everything in common...
What does this puzzling passage mean? As with any troubling or difficult passage, we must first understand the context to better grasp what the author means. Proverbs 31 begins as follows: “The words of King Lemuel. An oracle that his mother taught him” (v. 1). What did the king’s mother teach hi...
First, let me point out that the term "swear," as employed in our modern society, has two distinct senses. It is used as an equivalent for profanity, which, of course, no Christian should ever use. The term "swear" may also refer to a legal oath. The question above concerns this latter usage. Is ...
Before we obey the gospel, we are dead in sin (Eph. 2:1). But the question is, to what does this refer: the physical body or a spiritual condition? It refers, of course, to our spiritual condition. The passages cited in the question (Rom. 6:3-8; Col. 2:11-12) discuss the spiritual life we can hav...
To begin with, it is important to refresh our minds with those principles that identify an actual discrepancy. The law of contradiction briefly stated is this. “A thing cannot both be and not be for the same object at the same time in the same sense.” To summarize, if different things (or people)...
This is a good question, but the alleged problem is not of serious import. Let us consider the following factors. General Principles First, it has long been recognized that when referring to another's audible use of language or written words, it is not necessary to quote verbatim to accurately re...
The solution to this problem lies in the sense in which Israel's great king uses the language. There is no question that David's transgression caused widespread damage. He sinned against the woman with whom he committed this act of vileness. He sinned against Uriah, Bathsheba's husband. He sinned...
No, it wouldn't. Note the following factors: 1. The term "unknown" is not in the original text. The King James translators added it. It is unwarranted and unnecessary. 2. In 1 Corinthians 14, the nature of the "tongues" must match those defined earlier in the New Testament (i.e., human languages;...
