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Is there a reasonable explanation for John’s statement that the deeds of Christ could not fit into all of the world’s books (Jn. 21:25)?
In the phenonemon known as the “incarnation,” God (the Logos – John 1:1, known in the New Testament as “Christ”) became man. When he ascended back to the Father, did Jesus lay aside his “human” nature? This question deserves our careful attention.
