Some Bible students are puzzled that the writer of Hebrews uses present tense forms (8:13) to depict the passing of the Mosaic law. How are these to be explained in light of Bible teaching elsewhere that the law of Moses was abolished by the death of Christ (Eph. 2:15)?

Some today urge that the King James Version of the Bible is the very best available, because it was based upon the “Textus Receptus” Greek text. Though advocated by some sincere folks, this view is not consistent with the best of biblical scholarship. Note the following brief summary of this issue.

This article by Wayne Jackson provides a detailed analysis of Joshua’s long day as described in the Bible. It discusses various interpretations from both liberal and conservative scholars and ultimately argues that the event involved a genuine miracle.

What is the meaning of the expression “pure in heart,” in Christ’s promise that the “pure in heart” shall see God? Does this mean that sincerity alone is sufficient to finally obtain heaven?

Bible critics allege that Matthew and Mark contradict one another in their Gospel accounts relating to the “cursing” of the fig tree and the cleansing of the temple. This week’s Q&A segment addresses this issue.

Does God grant pardon to the “alien sinner” by means of prayer? Some suggest that the case of Cornelius (Acts 10) supplies an affirmative answer. This week’s question explores this issue.

A frequently asked question is: “Where did the different races of mankind come from?” For many years evolutionists contended that racial differences were the result of different lines of evolutionary development. This theory has been thoroughly disproven. The Bible presents an entirely different viewpoint.

How does the Bible student discern the difference between passages that contain figurative language, and those that strictly are literal? There is much confusion in the religious world regarding this issue. Read this article and learn some of the interpretative principles that are involved in correct Bible study on this matter.

The writer of Hebrews speaks of those who are beyond the possibility of repentance (Heb. 6:6). Does this mean that if a Christian falls away from the faith, he can never return? Is it even possible for the child of God to apostatize —so as to be lost? This week’s Q&A segment addresses this issue.

Some claim there is a mistake in Luke’s record of Christ’s initial post-resurrection appearance to his apostles. The historian mentions “the eleven,” when there were only ten. Judas was dead, and Thomas was not present. How is this problem to be resolved?

One of the most controversial contexts in the book of Acts has to do with Paul’s activity in the Jerusalem temple, as recorded in Acts 21. Did the apostle violate the law of God in “purifying” himself in that ritual? Some so claim, but is this a necessary conclusion?

A reader feels there may be some conflict between the first two chapters of the book of Genesis. But is this the case? Take a closer look at the supposed problem.

Based upon a misunderstanding of Ephesians 2:8, some argue that “faith” is a gift from God, and that it is not, therefore, a condition of salvation. This theory is the offspring of Calvinism. This week’s question explores this issue.

There are some who teach that the wicked will not be required to endure an “eternal punishment” (see Mt. 25:46) in hell. They argue that since “hell” is the “second death,” and as “death” is to be “destroyed,” it follows that hell will be destroyed ultimately. In this week’s Question and Answer segment, Wayne Jackson responds to this fallacious argument.

What will be the ultimate fate of those who never have a chance to hear the gospel of Christ? This is a question with which every sensitive soul struggles.

A significant group of misguided souls alleges that the “grace” of Jesus Christ has dispensed with the need for “law.” This “antinomian” ideology is designed to throw the mantle of fellowship around those who have not obeyed the Lord in the process of becoming a Christian. The adversarial conflict that some see between “grace” and “law” is false.

A critic, who believes that “speaking in tongues” is a gift available in this age, believes he has detected a flaw in our position that the gift of tongues was restricted to the first century. Based upon his view of 1 Corinthians 13:8ff, he argues that if “tongues” are obsolete, then “knowledge” should be as well. Since we still have knowledge, it is claimed, tongues remain as well. Here is our response to the gentleman’s objection.

The sacred historian Luke once declared that some of the Jews “justified God” when they accepted the immersion administered by John the Baptist (Lk. 7:29). How could this possibly be? Can a man “justify” God?

A sincere reader wants to know whether or not Judas was “predestined” to betray Christ. He feels that certain New Testament passages suggest that he was. This week’s Question discusses this issue.

Luke 17:31ff has been a confusing text to some Bible students. Does this section of Scripture refer to the destruction of Jerusalem (A.D. 70), or to the final Coming of Christ? This context is examined in this week’s Q&A segment.