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Does baptism come before or after the salvation contemplated in 1 Peter 3:21?
Was Jesus Christ “immersed” in the Jordan River, or did John merely pour water upon the Lord’s head? Some scholars have attempted to argue that the case for Jesus’ “immersion” cannot be proved. But what does the evidence actually reveal?
Did the apostle Paul teach that baptism was not necessary for salvation from sins? By no means. Study this passage with us.
A recent news item regarding the Mormon doctrine of “proxy baptism” highlights the inconsistencies of the practice and is the subject of this week’s Penpoints.
When did the practice of infant sprinkling originate? Was it an apostolic practice? Or did it develop later? Let us look at the historical facts.
Four important points from Matthew’s account of the Great Commission (Matt. 28:19-20).
Since the “baptism of the Holy Spirit” was bestowed upon the household of Cornelius, some wonder why the same experience cannot be received today. This article explains why Spirit “baptism” was an experience unique to the first century.
A recent news item highlighted a case where an inmate was refused the privilege of being immersed for the remission of his sins. A chorus of sectarian voices argued that “hard cases” like this negate the belief that baptism is a necessary condition for salvation. Is this quibble valid?
This article explores the biblical concept of being a “born-again” Christian, discussing the spiritual rebirth through the Holy Spirit, the role of baptism, and entrance into the kingdom of God.
Why was Jesus immersed at the hands of John the Baptizer? Many have a difficult time understanding this pivotal event in the life of our Lord.
A Roman Catholic gentleman suggests that Ezekiel 36:25 contains a prophecy of sprinkling as an acceptable mode of baptism. What is the biblical response to this assertion?
I believe the brother is mistaken in his view. Several things should be noted. First, it should be understood that Matthew's record is a very abbreviated account of John's ongoing ministry. Vast multitudes were pursuing John as he preached in "the wilderness of Judaea" (3:1, 5). The verb "went ou...
The denominational community has long assaulted Mark 16:16 due to the simplicity of the passage in including baptism as a preliminary condition of salvation. Now, such attacks are coming even from certain “change agents” within the body of Christ. This article highlights one such recent effort.
All loving parents want their children to be saved. But is infant baptism helping our children reach that goal? Or is it a dangerous and unscriptural practice that should be abandoned?
A sincere Bible student feels that the Greek translation of the Old Testament, the Septuagint, provides evidence that the Greek term bapto may signify the actions of either sprinkling or pouring, as a baptismal rite. What does the evidence actually reveal?
Was Cornelius, the Roman centurion of Acts chapter 10, saved before and without baptism?
Some allege that some 3,000 people could not have been immersed on the day of Pentecost because: (a) There was not enough time for twelve apostles to accomplish that feat; (b) There was not enough water in Jerusalem to accommodate such a great multitude.
Scholarly sources may be helpful, but good Bible students recognize any human source can be biased or flawed. God’s Word is the ultimate standard of faith and practice.
Why do most modern translations use the word baptize, an anglicized Greek word, rather than translating the Greek word into English?
Does the fact that God did not require water baptism for the remission of sins under the Mosaic system indicate that baptism must not be obligatory under the New Covenant? Does this compromise the Lord’s “immutability”? Study the question with us.
