A frequently asked question is: “Where did the different races of mankind come from?” For many years evolutionists contended that racial differences were the result of different lines of evolutionary development. This theory has been thoroughly disproven. The Bible presents an entirely different viewpoint.

How does the Bible student discern the difference between passages that contain figurative language, and those that strictly are literal? There is much confusion in the religious world regarding this issue. Read this article and learn some of the interpretative principles that are involved in correct Bible study on this matter.

The prophet Jeremiah made a startling prophecy regarding king Jeconiah, the next-to-last king ruling in Judah (Jer. 22:30). Was the prophecy fulfilled, or did Jeremiah err in his prediction?

The writer of Hebrews speaks of those who are beyond the possibility of repentance (Heb. 6:6). Does this mean that if a Christian falls away from the faith, he can never return? Is it even possible for the child of God to apostatize —so as to be lost? This week’s Q&A segment addresses this issue.

Some claim there is a mistake in Luke’s record of Christ’s initial post-resurrection appearance to his apostles. The historian mentions “the eleven,” when there were only ten. Judas was dead, and Thomas was not present. How is this problem to be resolved?

One of the most controversial contexts in the book of Acts has to do with Paul’s activity in the Jerusalem temple, as recorded in Acts 21. Did the apostle violate the law of God in “purifying” himself in that ritual? Some so claim, but is this a necessary conclusion?

A reader feels there may be some conflict between the first two chapters of the book of Genesis. But is this the case? Take a closer look at the supposed problem.

Based upon a misunderstanding of Ephesians 2:8, some argue that “faith” is a gift from God, and that it is not, therefore, a condition of salvation. This theory is the offspring of Calvinism. This week’s question explores this issue.

There are some who teach that the wicked will not be required to endure an “eternal punishment” (see Mt. 25:46) in hell. They argue that since “hell” is the “second death,” and as “death” is to be “destroyed,” it follows that hell will be destroyed ultimately. In this week’s Question and Answer segment, Wayne Jackson responds to this fallacious argument.

What will be the ultimate fate of those who never have a chance to hear the gospel of Christ? This is a question with which every sensitive soul struggles.

A critic, who believes that “speaking in tongues” is a gift available in this age, believes he has detected a flaw in our position that the gift of tongues was restricted to the first century. Based upon his view of 1 Corinthians 13:8ff, he argues that if “tongues” are obsolete, then “knowledge” should be as well. Since we still have knowledge, it is claimed, tongues remain as well. Here is our response to the gentleman’s objection.

The sacred historian Luke once declared that some of the Jews “justified God” when they accepted the immersion administered by John the Baptist (Lk. 7:29). How could this possibly be? Can a man “justify” God?

A sincere reader wants to know whether or not Judas was “predestined” to betray Christ. He feels that certain New Testament passages suggest that he was. This week’s Question discusses this issue.

Luke 17:31ff has been a confusing text to some Bible students. Does this section of Scripture refer to the destruction of Jerusalem (A.D. 70), or to the final Coming of Christ? This context is examined in this week’s Q&A segment.

The Jews of the Old Testament regime were responsible to the law of Moses. But what law were the Gentiles under? This is a question that perplexes many Bible students.

Is a Saturday-night observance of the Lord’s Supper just as good as observing it on the Lord’s Day?

How would it be possible for one to be happy in heaven, knowing that some of his loved ones are suffering in hell? This is a question that every thoughtful Christian has pondered at times. Is there a reasonable solution to this problem?

Some allege that the Gospel Accounts—Matthew, Mark, Luke, and John—reflect Old Testament legislation, and therefore these books do not constitute an authoritative body of instruction for Christians. This article addresses the fallacy of this kind of reasoning.

Why does the Jehovah’s Witness’ Bible render John 1:1 as, “the Word was a god”?

It is sometimes claimed that Exodus 21:22-23 provides evidence that a fetus is not entitled to the same legal protection as the mother, and, therefore, is not treated as an equal “person.” Is this an accurate exegesis of the text?