How does the Bible student discern the difference between passages that contain figurative language, and those that strictly are literal? There is much confusion in the religious world regarding this issue. Read this article and learn some of the interpretative principles that are involved in correct Bible study on this matter.

The prophet Jeremiah made a startling prophecy regarding king Jeconiah, the next-to-last king ruling in Judah (Jer. 22:30). Was the prophecy fulfilled, or did Jeremiah err in his prediction?

The writer of Hebrews speaks of those who are beyond the possibility of repentance (Heb. 6:6). Does this mean that if a Christian falls away from the faith, he can never return? Is it even possible for the child of God to apostatize —so as to be lost? This week’s Q&A segment addresses this issue.

A reader feels there may be some conflict between the first two chapters of the book of Genesis. But is this the case? Take a closer look at the supposed problem.

There are some who teach that the wicked will not be required to endure an “eternal punishment” (see Mt. 25:46) in hell. They argue that since “hell” is the “second death,” and as “death” is to be “destroyed,” it follows that hell will be destroyed ultimately. In this week’s Question and Answer segment, Wayne Jackson responds to this fallacious argument.

What will be the ultimate fate of those who never have a chance to hear the gospel of Christ? This is a question with which every sensitive soul struggles.

A significant group of misguided souls alleges that the “grace” of Jesus Christ has dispensed with the need for “law.” This “antinomian” ideology is designed to throw the mantle of fellowship around those who have not obeyed the Lord in the process of becoming a Christian. The adversarial conflict that some see between “grace” and “law” is false.

A critic, who believes that “speaking in tongues” is a gift available in this age, believes he has detected a flaw in our position that the gift of tongues was restricted to the first century. Based upon his view of 1 Corinthians 13:8ff, he argues that if “tongues” are obsolete, then “knowledge” should be as well. Since we still have knowledge, it is claimed, tongues remain as well. Here is our response to the gentleman’s objection.

The sacred historian Luke once declared that some of the Jews “justified God” when they accepted the immersion administered by John the Baptist (Lk. 7:29). How could this possibly be? Can a man “justify” God?

A sincere reader wants to know whether or not Judas was “predestined” to betray Christ. He feels that certain New Testament passages suggest that he was. This week’s Question discusses this issue.

Luke 17:31ff has been a confusing text to some Bible students. Does this section of Scripture refer to the destruction of Jerusalem (A.D. 70), or to the final Coming of Christ? This context is examined in this week’s Q&A segment.

The Jews of the Old Testament regime were responsible to the law of Moses. But what law were the Gentiles under? This is a question that perplexes many Bible students.

Does any man have the right to forgive sins? Some suggest that Jesus granted this authority to the apostles, and then, through them, to others (see John 20:23). Can you explain this passage?

It is commonly alleged that Jesus, in John 6:37, endorsed the idea of “predestination” as popularized by John Calvin in the 16th century. Did he? Study this question with us.

Is it necessary to be a member of a local church?

On his way to Golgotha, Christ addressed a group of Jerusalem’s weeping women, and asked: “For if they do these things in a green tree, what shall be done in the dry?” What is the meaning of this mysterious “green tree” saying?

In 1 Corinthians 14, Paul mentions those who, when speaking in tongues, utter “mysteries.” Does this phraseology support the idea that these tongues are not human languages, but, instead, special “ecstatic” tongues?

A “Jehovah’s Witness” is upset at some of our articles that affirm the divine nature of Jesus Christ. He claims that John 17:3 negates the idea that Jesus is “God” in nature. This article responds to the gentleman’s charge.

What is the meaning of the phrase, “the destruction of the flesh,” in 1 Corinthians 5:5? Did it sanction the use of capital punishment in the church for immoral and/or heretical people?

Did the prophet Daniel foretell the general resurrection of the dead at the end of time (12:2), or was this a mere figure of speech pertaining to some local event?